AIIMS June 2020 Pharmacology Questions

Some of the AIIMS June 2020 Pharmacology questions as recalled by students 

(These are recall based questions and hence the options and reconstruction of questions may slightly vary from original questions)

((Disclaimer - Subjected to Memory bias - ☺))

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1. NOT a prodrug: 

a. Proguanil 

b. 5FU 

c. Sulindac 

d. Primidone

 

2. A pregnant patient is suffering from grave’s disease. Which of the following drug used during pregnancy can cause aplasia cutis: 

a. Carbimazole 

b. Warfarin 

c. PTU 

d. Thyroxin

3. . DOC for hairy cell leukemia: 

a. Cladribine 

b. Fludarabine 

c. Pentostatin 

d. IFN a

4. Best antifungal ointment for treating inflammation and pruritus: 

a. Luliconazole 

b. Terbinafine 

c. Ketoconazole 

d. Sertaconzole 

5. Which of the following anti cancer drug cause this shown skin reaction (Flagellate dermatitis in Image)

a. Bleomycin 

b. Busulfan 

c. Daunorubicin 

d. Dactinomycin 

6. An elderly Diabetic and hypertensive male presents with CKD stage 5, and does not want to take insulin. Which anti-diabetic drug will you prefer in this patient that does not require dose modification in renal disease: 

a. Linagliptin 

b. Vildagliptin 

c. Glimepiride 

d. Repaglinide 

7. A 55-year-old male who was on rosuvastatin for dyslipidemia which drug will not be given to this patient: 

a. Rivaroxaban 

b. Adalimumab 

c. Clarithromycin 

d. Enoxaparin 

8. A nurse has to give eye ointment and eyedrop to a patient. How should she give: 

a. Eye ointment followed by eye drop immediately 

b. Eye ointment followed by eye drop after 15 mins 

c. Eye drop followed by ointment immediately 

d. Eye drop followed by ointment after 15 mins

.

9.  A psychotropic drug which inhibit the reuptake of serotonin, can cause this side effect: 

a. Visual disturbance 

b. Dry mount 

c. Constipation 

d. Sexual dysfunction

10. How will you take blood sample for drug monitoring of lithium

 a. 8 hrs after last dose

b. 12 hrs after last dose 

c. 24 hrs after last dose 

d. Immediately after dose

11. A patient was given metoprolol for hypertension. He has also received verapamil. Which of the following will be seen: 

a. Bradycardia with heart block 

b. Ventricular fibrillation 

c. Torsades de pointes 

d. Tachycardia

12. Which drug is not given in NSTEMI: 

a. Clopidogrel 

b. Aspirin 

c. Streptokinase 

d. Prasugrel 

13. Mechanism of action of coumarin: 

a. Competitive 

b. Non competitive 

c. Suicide inhibition 

d. Uncompetitive

14. Best PEP for HIV: 

a. Zidovudine + lamivudine 

b. Zidovudine + Stavudine + Nevirapine 

c. Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine 

d. Zidovudine + lamivudine + Indinavir

15. Which of the following act via Intracellular receptor 

a. Thyroxin 

b. Insulin

 c. Glucagon 

d. Parathormone

16. Vitamin deficiency that can cause neonatal seizure: 

a. Thiamine

b. Riboflavin 

c. Pyridoxine 

d. Pentathanoic acid

17. Antidote for fibrinolytics overdose: 

a. Tranexamic acid 

b. Alteplase 

c. Andexanet alfa 

d. EACA

18. Action when muscarinic receptor is stimulated: 

a. Erection 

b. Ejaculation 

c. Bronchodilation 

d. Increased contraction of cardiac muscles

19. A patient is given lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. The nurse is asked to give instruction on side effects of patient and report back if any signs seen: 

a. Sedation, constipation, vomiting 

b. Palpitation, chest pain 

c. Tinnitus, severe diarrhea, ataxia 

d. Rash, raised BP, bradycardia

20. Enteric coated tablet advantages are all except: 

a. Increased half life 

b. Protect from acid 

c. Deliver drug distal to stomach 

d. Prevent irritant effect of drug to stomach

21. Which is NOT bactericidal:

 a. Kanamycin 

b. Thiocetazone 

c. Isoniazid 

d. Rifapentine 

22. A patient is on long standing anti-convulsant. There is progressive contractility of visual field: a. Vigabatrin 

b. Ethosuximide 

c. Phenobarbital 

d. Levetiracetam

23. Which is a 2nd line ATT: 

a. Ethionamide 

b. Streptomycin 

c. Acyclovir 

d. Valcyclovir 

24. A female with unilateral breast cancer is on tamoxifen therapy. Possible adverse effect which is associated with use of tamoxifen: 

a. Ovarian carcinoma 

b. Opposite breast CA 

c. Endometrial carcinoma 

d. Secondary leukemia

25. COCP mechanism of action are all EXCEPT: 

a. Inhibit ovulation 

b. Increase gonadotropin secretion

c. Increase thickness and hostility of cervical mucous 

d. Inhibit implantation

26. Which of the following is NOT used in treatment of PCOS: 

a. Letrozole 

b. Ulipristal 

c. Clomiphene citrate 

d. COCP

27. Urethral cystitis is a known side effect of: 

a. Actinomycin 

b. Bleomycin 

c. Doxorubicin 

d. Mitomycin C

28. Methylisothiazolindone role in cosmetic: 

a. Surfactant 

b. Preservative 

c. Emulsifier 

d. Humefactant

29. Drugs used in management of delirium tremens: 

a. IV Lorazepam 

b. IV Lorazepam + Thiamine 

c. IV haloperidol 

d. IV haloperidol + Thiamine

30. Which of the following reason best explains use of thiopentone sodium and Sch before ECT: 

a. To reduce secretion 

b. To calm down the patient 

c. To produce anaesthesia and muscle relaxation 

d. To stabilize mood and maintain memory

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