AIIMS June 2020 FMT & Toxicology Questions

 

Some of the AIIMS June 2020 FMT & Toxicology questions as recalled by students 

(These are recall based questions and hence the options and reconstruction of questions may slightly vary from original questions)

((Disclaimer - Subjected to Memory bias - ☺))

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Q1. A young girl came to the AIIMS Emergency OPD with her mother. Her birth date was 31/01/2007 and history of Peno-vaginal penetration by their neighbour was given by the patient. She also said that she gave the consent for the same. She refused for medical examination. What could you do as a medical practitioner attending such patient?

1. Should not inform the police 

2. Should inform the police 

3. Should counsel the mother and daughter 

4. Should do examination even after refusal 

5. Take refusal form 

A. 2,3, 5 are true 

B. 1,2,3 are true 

C. 3,4,5 are true 

D. 2,3, are true

Q2. A 23 year old male patient was brought history of stove burst. Burns involving face, head with singeing of hair, neck, both arms, front of chest bilaterally noted. The percentage of burns is 

A. 18% 

B. 27 % 

C. 36% 

D. 45%

Q3. Identify the type of injury 

A. Laceration 

B. Incised wound 

C. Chop wound 

D. Stab wound

Q4. Identify the type of injury

A. Laceration looking incision 

B. Incised looking laceration 

C. Chop wound 

D. Stab wound

Q5. Identify the type of fracture

A. Ring fracture 

B. Comminuted fracture 

C. Fissure fracture 

D. Sutural fracture

Q6. During a surgery, if a doctor feels to remove/operate more than what he anticipated before surgery, then this is covered under which doctrine?

A. Doctrine of anticipation 

B. Res Ipsa loquitare 

C. Doctrine of conjugated consent 

D. Doctrine of extended consent 

Q7. During hysterectomy surgery, there was a damage to ureter, inspite of all diligent care and precautions taken by the doctor. This is a type of

A. Medical maloccurence 

B. Res Ipsa loquitare 

C. Novus actus interveniens 

D. Physicians error

Q8. False statement regarding snake bite?

A. ASV is the mainstay of treatment 

B. Neostigmine, ventilatory support should be given along with ASV 

C. Indian polyvalent ASV not effective against hump nosed viper 

D. ASV + neostigmine+ atropine indicated for treatment of krait snake bite 

Q9. Identify the seed

A. Datura seeds 

B. Tropicana black 

C. Nigella sativa

 D. Opium 

Q10. Minimum punishment for selling spurious drug likely to cause death is

A. 1 year 

B. 5 years 

C. 7 years 

D. Life imprisonment

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AIIMS June 2020 Questions with answers

Some of the AIIMS June 2020  questions as recalled by students 

(These are recall based questions and hence the options and reconstruction of questions may slightly vary from original questions)

((Disclaimer - Subjected to Memory bias - ☺))

Free PG Notes <<<Download here>>>

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⇨PSM

⇨Anatomy

⇨Physiology

⇨Paediatrics

⇨Pharmacology

⇨Forensic Medicine & Toxicology

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AIIMS June 2020 Pharmacology Questions

Some of the AIIMS June 2020 Pharmacology questions as recalled by students 

(These are recall based questions and hence the options and reconstruction of questions may slightly vary from original questions)

((Disclaimer - Subjected to Memory bias - ☺))

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1. NOT a prodrug: 

a. Proguanil 

b. 5FU 

c. Sulindac 

d. Primidone

 

2. A pregnant patient is suffering from grave’s disease. Which of the following drug used during pregnancy can cause aplasia cutis: 

a. Carbimazole 

b. Warfarin 

c. PTU 

d. Thyroxin

3. . DOC for hairy cell leukemia: 

a. Cladribine 

b. Fludarabine 

c. Pentostatin 

d. IFN a

4. Best antifungal ointment for treating inflammation and pruritus: 

a. Luliconazole 

b. Terbinafine 

c. Ketoconazole 

d. Sertaconzole 

5. Which of the following anti cancer drug cause this shown skin reaction (Flagellate dermatitis in Image)

a. Bleomycin 

b. Busulfan 

c. Daunorubicin 

d. Dactinomycin 

6. An elderly Diabetic and hypertensive male presents with CKD stage 5, and does not want to take insulin. Which anti-diabetic drug will you prefer in this patient that does not require dose modification in renal disease: 

a. Linagliptin 

b. Vildagliptin 

c. Glimepiride 

d. Repaglinide 

7. A 55-year-old male who was on rosuvastatin for dyslipidemia which drug will not be given to this patient: 

a. Rivaroxaban 

b. Adalimumab 

c. Clarithromycin 

d. Enoxaparin 

8. A nurse has to give eye ointment and eyedrop to a patient. How should she give: 

a. Eye ointment followed by eye drop immediately 

b. Eye ointment followed by eye drop after 15 mins 

c. Eye drop followed by ointment immediately 

d. Eye drop followed by ointment after 15 mins

.

9.  A psychotropic drug which inhibit the reuptake of serotonin, can cause this side effect: 

a. Visual disturbance 

b. Dry mount 

c. Constipation 

d. Sexual dysfunction

10. How will you take blood sample for drug monitoring of lithium

 a. 8 hrs after last dose

b. 12 hrs after last dose 

c. 24 hrs after last dose 

d. Immediately after dose

11. A patient was given metoprolol for hypertension. He has also received verapamil. Which of the following will be seen: 

a. Bradycardia with heart block 

b. Ventricular fibrillation 

c. Torsades de pointes 

d. Tachycardia

12. Which drug is not given in NSTEMI: 

a. Clopidogrel 

b. Aspirin 

c. Streptokinase 

d. Prasugrel 

13. Mechanism of action of coumarin: 

a. Competitive 

b. Non competitive 

c. Suicide inhibition 

d. Uncompetitive

14. Best PEP for HIV: 

a. Zidovudine + lamivudine 

b. Zidovudine + Stavudine + Nevirapine 

c. Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine 

d. Zidovudine + lamivudine + Indinavir

15. Which of the following act via Intracellular receptor 

a. Thyroxin 

b. Insulin

 c. Glucagon 

d. Parathormone

16. Vitamin deficiency that can cause neonatal seizure: 

a. Thiamine

b. Riboflavin 

c. Pyridoxine 

d. Pentathanoic acid

17. Antidote for fibrinolytics overdose: 

a. Tranexamic acid 

b. Alteplase 

c. Andexanet alfa 

d. EACA

18. Action when muscarinic receptor is stimulated: 

a. Erection 

b. Ejaculation 

c. Bronchodilation 

d. Increased contraction of cardiac muscles

19. A patient is given lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. The nurse is asked to give instruction on side effects of patient and report back if any signs seen: 

a. Sedation, constipation, vomiting 

b. Palpitation, chest pain 

c. Tinnitus, severe diarrhea, ataxia 

d. Rash, raised BP, bradycardia

20. Enteric coated tablet advantages are all except: 

a. Increased half life 

b. Protect from acid 

c. Deliver drug distal to stomach 

d. Prevent irritant effect of drug to stomach

21. Which is NOT bactericidal:

 a. Kanamycin 

b. Thiocetazone 

c. Isoniazid 

d. Rifapentine 

22. A patient is on long standing anti-convulsant. There is progressive contractility of visual field: a. Vigabatrin 

b. Ethosuximide 

c. Phenobarbital 

d. Levetiracetam

23. Which is a 2nd line ATT: 

a. Ethionamide 

b. Streptomycin 

c. Acyclovir 

d. Valcyclovir 

24. A female with unilateral breast cancer is on tamoxifen therapy. Possible adverse effect which is associated with use of tamoxifen: 

a. Ovarian carcinoma 

b. Opposite breast CA 

c. Endometrial carcinoma 

d. Secondary leukemia

25. COCP mechanism of action are all EXCEPT: 

a. Inhibit ovulation 

b. Increase gonadotropin secretion

c. Increase thickness and hostility of cervical mucous 

d. Inhibit implantation

26. Which of the following is NOT used in treatment of PCOS: 

a. Letrozole 

b. Ulipristal 

c. Clomiphene citrate 

d. COCP

27. Urethral cystitis is a known side effect of: 

a. Actinomycin 

b. Bleomycin 

c. Doxorubicin 

d. Mitomycin C

28. Methylisothiazolindone role in cosmetic: 

a. Surfactant 

b. Preservative 

c. Emulsifier 

d. Humefactant

29. Drugs used in management of delirium tremens: 

a. IV Lorazepam 

b. IV Lorazepam + Thiamine 

c. IV haloperidol 

d. IV haloperidol + Thiamine

30. Which of the following reason best explains use of thiopentone sodium and Sch before ECT: 

a. To reduce secretion 

b. To calm down the patient 

c. To produce anaesthesia and muscle relaxation 

d. To stabilize mood and maintain memory

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AIIMS June 2020 Paediatrics Questions

Some of the AIIMS June 2020 Paediatrics questions as recalled by students 

(These are recall based questions and hence the options and reconstruction of questions may slightly vary from original questions)

((Disclaimer - Subjected to Memory bias - ☺))

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Q1. Hand to hand shift development in a 6 months old baby, what does it indicate? 

a. Visual motor coordination 

b. Voluntary release 

c. Hand brain coordination 

d. Release phenomenon

explaination -Reference Nelson Page 132 

Q2.Vitamin deficiency causing neonatal seizure: 

a. Pyridoxine 

b. Pantothenic acid 

c. Biotin 

d. Thiamine

explaination -Pyridoxine dependency and pyridoxal -5 phosphate dependency causes neonatal seizures

Q3. Correction of VSD is done to avoid or correct:

a. Failure to thrive 

b. Arrythmia 

c. Heart attack 

d. Respiratory alkalosis

explaination -Indications for surgical closure of VSD 

a. Patient at any age with large defects in whom clinical symptoms and failure to thrive cannot be controlled medically. 

b. Infant between 6 and 12 months of age with moderate to large defect associated with pulmonary hypertension even if the symptoms are controlled by medication. 

c. Patient older than 24 months with Qp : Qs ratio greater than 2 : 1 

d. Supracristal VSD 

Q4. All are true in a severe acute malnutrition except: 

a. Weight for age less than 3 SD 

b. Weight for height less than 3SD 

c. Oedema 

d. Mid arm circumference less than 110 mm

explaination -Diagnosis of SAM a. Weight for height <70% of expected or < - 3Z score b. Mid upper arm circumference < 11.5 cm c. Edema

 

Q5. In phototherapy bilirubin is converted to: 

a. Lumirubin 

b. Biliverdin

explaination -In phototherapy – • Structural isomerisation o Bilirubin is converted to lumirubin 

Photo isomerisation o 4Z, 15Z – bilirubin is converted to 4Z, 15E – bilirubin

Q6. 2 months back history of fever with bloody diarrhoea in a child followed by swollen, red and errythematous joint: 

a. Rota virus 

b. Shigella 

c. E. Coli 

d. Giordia

explaination -Post infectious complication in entric infections 

a. Reactive arthritis 

i. Salmonella

 ii. Shigella 

iii. Yersinia

 iv. Campylobacter 

b. Guillain – Barre syndrome

 i. Campylobacter 

c. Haemolytic uremic syndrome – 

i. STEC

 ii. Shigella dysentenae 1

Q7. Features of severe dehydration except: 

a. Thirsty child 

b. Sunken fontanelle 

c. Skin pitch return slowly 

d. Drowsy

Q8. All are indicative of paediatric asthma except: 

a. Increase in FEV1 > 12% after bronchodilator 

b. AM : PM variation > 15% 

c. FEV1 decrease more than 15% after exercise 

d. FEV1 / FVC < 80%

explaination - Lung Function Abnormalities in Asthma and Assessment of Airway Inflammation 

• Spirometry (in clinic) 

• Airflow limitation: 

o Low FEV1 (relative to percentage of predicted norms) 

o FEV1/FVC ratio <0.80 

• Bronchodilator response (to inhaled β-agonist) assesses reversibility of airflow limitation. 

• Reversibility is determined by an increase in either FEV1>1 2% or predicted FEV1)10% after inhalation of a short-acting 

• B-agonist (SABA) 

• Exercise challenge: 

o Worsening in FEV1 ≥ 15% 

• Daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) or FEV1 monitoring: day-to-day and / or AM-to-PM variation ≥20%

Q9. Osteomalacia is developed due to excess excretion of phosphate in urine. What is the diagnosis: 

a. Antiepileptic drug 

b. Vit D resistance 

c. Hereditary 

d. Vit D deficiency

explaination -Among the genetic disorders causing rickets

 X linked hypophosphatemic is the most common 

Increased fibroblast excretion Overproduction of FGF23 is also seen in –

a. Tumour induced osteomalacia 

b. McCune Albright syndrome 

c. Fanconisyndrome 

d. Dent disease

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AIIMS June 2020 Physiology questions

 

           Some of the AIIMS June 2020 Physiology questions as recalled by students 

(These are recall based questions and hence the options and reconstruction of questions may slightly vary from original questions)

((Disclaimer - Subjected to Memory bias - ☺))

Free PG Notes <<<Download here>>>

Free Medical Boks <<<Download here>>>

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1. Gibbs-Donnan equilibrium is mainly by: 

A. Ca2+ 

B. Phosphate 

C. Bicarbonate 

D. Protein 

Ans: D 

Donnan and Gibbs showed that in the presence of a non-diffusible ion (protein), diffusible ions distributes themselves differentially at equilibrium. 

2. Calculate ECF volume from the following. 10gm mannitol injection given in venous blood. At equilibrium, urinary excretion 10% & plasma concentration of mannitol is 65mg/100ml. 

A. 14L 

B. 10 L 

C. 28 L 

D. 12 L 

Ans: A 

This is based on formula; V= (Q-e)/c = 9000mg/0.65mg/ml = 13.8L

3. Which of the following hormone have intracellular receptor: 

A. Thyroxin 

B. Glucagon 

C. Epinephrine 

D. Parathormone 

Ans: A 

Thyroxin has intranuclear receptor. All others hormones in this option have membrane receptors. 

4. In negative feedback, feedback gain is infinity in which of the following 

A. Temperature control in hypothalamus 

B. Blood volume control by kidney 

C. Blood pressure control by baroreflex 

D. No such infinite feedback gain is not possible 

Ans: B 

For a given intake of salt and a given functional state of the kidneys, there is only one single arterial pressure that will provide a balance between intake and output of salt. Because of this the arterial pressure, in the long run, will always attempt to return exactly to this pressure level (error = 0).

5. In skeletal muscle DHPR & RYR receptors are coupled by? 

A. Chemically 

B. Mechanically 

C. Electrical followed by mechanical 

D. Electrical

 

Ans: C 

Electrical activation of T-tubules activates DHPR channel on it, which interact mechanically with RyR on SR membrane for release of calcium. If it’s not in option, then single best is mechanical

6. 65 year old male patient visited to ER for chest pain and his BP was measured as SBP 190 mmHg, DBP 100 mmHg, Pulse pressure 90 mmHg. Which of the following parameter that should decrease for this high pulse pressure 

A. Arterial wall compliance 

B. Stroke volume 

C. Cardiac output 

D. Myocardial contractility 

Ans: A

 Low compliance increases SBP, rising the PP.

7. Which of the following is not required for calculation of creatine clearance ? 

A. Urine creatine 

B. Serum creatinine 

C. Volume of urine in 24 hrs 

D. Volume of serum in the kidney in 24hrs 

Ans: D 

This clearance estimation based on UV/P formula. 24 hour urine is collected and creatinine concertation is measure. 

8. Single neuron receive 500 inputs from 150 different sensory cells 

A. Feedback inhibition 

B. Feedforward excitation 

C. Convergence 

D. Divergence 

Ans: C 

This is an example of convergence of input signals (excitatory or inhibitory) from multiple sources.

9. Mechanism of Transcutaneous electrical stimulation (TENS) for pain management of pain: 

A. Inhibitory neurotransmitter at spinal cord 

B. Adrenergic receptor stimulation 

C. Gating at spinal cord 

D. Supraspinal control 

Ans: C 

Modulation of gate-control mechanism of pain serves as the rationale behind the use of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) for pain relief. This method uses electrodes to activate Aα and Aβ fibers near the injury

10. In physiology viva, examiner asked to student “who recorded first human EEG?. Student responded ‘I don't know’. Examiner felt bad and decide to give him a hint, “the name rhymes with what you get at McDonald’s” Then the student gave the right answer. Here, the student uses which type of memory: 

A. Priming 

B. Reflex 

C. Associated learning 

D. Declarative memory 

Ans: Priming 

Priming is the facilitation of the recognition of words or objects by prior exposure to them and is dependent on the neocortex. Students answer “Hans Berger recorded the first human EEGs in 1924!!!”. 

Associative learning relates to classical and operant conditioning in which one learns about the relationship between one stimulus and another. This type of memory is dependent on the amygdala for its emotional responses and the cerebellum for the motor responses.

11. The graph below shows the normal rate of synthesis of the various haemoglobin chains in utero, and after birth. Gamma chain of haemoglobin is indicated by which of the following: 

A. A 

B. B 

C. C 

D. D

Ans: B 

The fetal hemoglobin (hemoglobin F) is composed of α2γ2 [above graph, Chain A: α; Chain B: γ] In young embryos there are, in addition, ζ and ε chains [Chain D in above graph], forming Gower 1 hemoglobin (ζ2ε2) and Gower 2 hemoglobin (α2ε2).

Analysis: All questions are from basic textbook only (Ganong/Guyton) and all questions are from simple principle of physiology only. No controversial questions.

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