Wednesday, June 24, 2020

JIPMER PG 2020 OBG Questions


JIPMER PG 2020 OBG Questions with explaination


1. 1 st sign of puberty in girls 
a. Breast development 
b. Axillary, pubic hair 
c. Menarche 
d. Growth spurt 

Ans: a. Breast development 
Explanation: ➢ 1 st sign of puberty in girls is -----Thelarche 
➢ Hormone responsible for thelarche----Estrogen. 
➢ Sequence of puberty changes in girls------ThelarchePubarcheMenarche 
➢ Pubic hair appears first than axillary hair. 
➢ 1 st sign of puberty in boys is ↑ Testicular sign. 


2. According to WHO what is the minimal sperm count 
a. 10 million/ml 
b. 15 million/ml 
c. 20 million/ml 
d. 25 million/ml 

Ans. b. 15 million/ml 
Explanation: ▪ According to WHO(2010) criteria, cut off value for semen analysis are----- 
                                         1992 guidelines(WHO)                               2010 guidelines(WHO)                
 Volume           • 2ml           • ≥ 1.5 ml 
 Sperm concentration 20 million/ml ≥ 15milliom/ml
 Sperm motility 50% progressive or > 25% rapidly progressive ≥ 32% progressive
 Morphology( strict criteria) >15% normal forms ≥4% normal forms
 WBC  <1 million/ml  <1 million/ml
 Immuno-bead test <10% coated with antibodies <50%


3. 28 year old lady comes to infertility clinic with ↑FSH, serum estradiol , what could be probable diagnosis
a. Tubal block 
b. Anovulation 
c. Hyperprolactinemia 
d. Premature ovarian failure 

Ans: d. Premature ovarian failure 
Explanation: 
▪ Well in this case tubal block hormonal profile has no relation, Anovulation will not present with this type of hormonal profile. In case of hyperprolactinemia there would have been history of galactorrhea or serum levels of prolactin should have been mentioned in the question, which is not there. 

▪ In case of anovulation & hyperprolactinemia there is FSH. 

▪ So, this is a case of premature ovarian failure.
➢ Premature ovarian failure--- 
❖ Ovarian failure occurring before the age of 40 years. 
❖ There is triad------ • Amenorrhea • Hypogonadism • Hypoestrogenism 
❖ Cause----- Idiopathic, autoimmune disorders, genetic causes, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, surgery etc. 
❖ Diagnosis---FSH>40mIU/ml 
❖ Treatment-- of infertility by doing IVF using donor oocytes
4. Treatment of stage III b cancer cervix 
a. Radical trachelectomy 
b. Chemotherapy + Radiotherapy 
c. Modified radical hysterectomy 
d. TAH with BSO 

Ans: b. Chemotherapy + Radiotherapy 
Explanation: 
❖ Treatment of stage III b cancer Cervix is CONCURRENT CHEMORADIATION. 
❖ Cisplatin based chemotherapy+ Brachytherapy+ teletherapy 
❖ Stagewise treatment----
      Stage of ca cervix                                                
                           Treatment               

 Stage 0 Fertility preserved------
➢ LEEP(Best)
➢ Laser therapy
➢ Conisation
Menopausal-------Hysterectomy/Radiotherapy
 Stage IA1 Fertility preserved ----Conization
No preservation of fertility----total hysterectomy/Radiotherapy(Unfit to surgery)
 Stage IA2 Radical hysterectomy with lymph node dissection Unfit to surgery----Brachytherapy + Chemotherapy
 Stage IB & IIA(<4cm)  Radical hysterectomy with pelvic LN dissection Unfit for surgery---RT as for stage IA2
 Stage IB & bulkyIIA(>4cm)  Concurrent Chemoradiation
 Stage IIB, IIIA, IIIB Concurrent chemoradiation
 Stage IV A  Concurrent chemoradiation+ palliative Rx
 Stage IVB Palliative Rx with or without Chemoradiation

5. Not required in the diagnosis of PCOS 
a. Hirsuitism 
b. Oligomenorrhea 
c. Insulin resistance 
d. Volume >10mm3 

Ans: Insulin Resistance 
Explanation: 
• For the diagnostic criteria of PCOS there is Rotterdam criteria or ESHRE`s Criteria.
 • According to any of the criteria--- 2/3 features should be present to diagnose PCOD 
❖ Hirsuitism---clinical and or lab findings 
❖ Menstrual disturbance—Oligomenorrhea or secondary amenorrhea, anovulation 
❖ USG/TVS—showing Polycystic ovaries(> 12 follicles/ovary, 2-9mm each follicle or volume of ovary >10ml). Exclusion of other etiologies 

 So, nowhere insulin resistance is written in any of the two criteria necessary for the diagnosis of PCOS. 


6. CALL-Exner Bodies are seen in 
a. Fibroma 
b. Thecoma 
c. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma 
d. Granulosa cell tumor 

Ans: d. Granulosa cell tumor 
Explanation: 
▪ Call-exner bodies are seen in Granulosa cell tumor.



7. What is the karyotype of complete Mole 
a. 46XX 
b. 46YY 
c. 69XXX 
d. 69XXY 

Ans: a. 46XX 
Explanation: 
H. Mole is of two types---
                       Complete Mole                                 Partial Mole                                  
 Diploid
90% 46XX
10% 46XY
 Triploid
69XXX
69XXY
69YYY

8. Most common cause of Death in cancer cervix 
a. Uremia 
b. Sepsis 
c. Anemia 
d. Fistula 

Ans: a. Uremia 
Explanation: 
➢ Main cause of death in advanced cancer cervix patients is uremia or renal failure(60% cases) due to cancer spreading to kidneys and shut down of renal function.


9. An obese lady is diagnosed with PCOS. What would be the 1st line of management 
a. OCP 
b. Life style modification 
c. Metformin 
d. Spironolactone 

Ans: b. Life style modification 
Explanation: 
➢ Many articles, workshops, case controlled studies have proven that in case of obese females with PCOS have proven that 5-10% of weight reduction or doing life style modification has improved PCOS symptoms including reduction in androgen levels, correction of insulin resistance and hence improving menstrual abnormalities. 
➢ So, any medication comes next line of management. 

10. Which of the following will not cause fern pattern of cervical mucus 
a. High estrogen 
b. High progesterone 
c. High NaCl 
d. Low protein 

Ans: b. High Progesterone 
Explanation: 
➢ Ferning of cervical mucus is caused by estrogen 
➢ Estrogen act on cervical glands and leads to profuse secretion of cervical mucus, if we make smear on slide and visualize under microscope we will see ferning of cervical mucus. This pattern is caused by presence of NaCl in cervical muscus 
➢ Progesterone makes cervical mucus thick & scanty so do not cause ferning


11. Which of the following is not included in 3rd stage of labor 
a. Uterine massage 
b. Oxytocin I/M 
c. Controlled cord traction after signs of placental separation 
d. Controlled cord traction before signs of placental separation 

Ans: d. Controlled cord traction before signs of placental separation
 Explanation: 
▪ Controlled cord traction before signs of placental separation can lead to acute inversion of uterus, so not done. 
▪ Now a days placental delivery is done active management of 3rd stage of labour accord to WHO--- 



12. Markers antenatally checked are 
a. AFP 
b. βHCG 
c. AMH 
d. Inhibin 

 Ans: c.AMH 
Explanation: 
➢ In this question they are asking fetal markers for aneuploid in pregnancy that’s why antenatal word is used. 
➢ So, AFP, βHCG, Inhibin are markers for aneuploidy(Down`s syndrome) 
➢ Markers for tripple test and quadruple test----
      Triple test markers                   Quadruple test markers                
 αFP
βHCG
Estriol
 αFP
βHCG
Estriol
Inhibin
➢ AMH(Anti-mullerian Hormone) is used to ovarian reserve. AMH is produced by granulose cells of ovary, it tells you about follicle status. AMH <1ng/ml tells poor ovarian reserve. AMH levels are needed for IVF(In-Vitro fertilization cases)

13. Investigation to detect superficial peritoneal Endometriosis 
a. USG 
b. Laparoscopy 
c. CA-125 
d. CEA 

Ans: b. Laproscopy
 Explanation: 
➢ Laparoscopy is the gold standard investigation for Endometriosis as it is diagnostic as well as therapeutic. 

14. All of the following decrease sperm motility except
 a. Driving for long hours 
b. Prolonged abstinence 
c. Smoking 
d. Long standing 

Ans: d. Long Standing



15. Young married female presents with amenorrhea and pain abdomen. All of the following you will suspect except 
a. Ectopic pregnancy 
b. Dysmenorrhea 
c. Cryptomenorrhea 
d. Endometriosis 

Ans: b. Dysmenorrhea 
Explanation: 
➢ Dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation, it wont cause amenorrhea
 ➢ Whereas D/D for amenorrhea & pain abdomen will be ---- 
 Ectopic pregnancy 
▪ Cryptomenorrhea 
▪ Endometriosis 

16. Which of the following you won`t follow in your practice to reduce the incidence of uterine prolapse 
a. HRT 
b. Advice proper nutrition from childhood to menopause 
c. Advice postpartum exercise 
d. Prevention of prolonged 2nd stage of labor 

Ans: HRT 
Explanation: 
▪ Most important cause of Genital prolapsed in our country is home deliveries conducted by dais. 
▪ So, in case of hospitalized deliveries conducted by trained personnel prolonged 2rd stage of labor can be prevented or managed properly, post delivery exercises to bulid up tone of perineal muscles can be explained.(Kegel`s exercise). 
▪ Also improving proper nutrition from childhood to menopause can prevent such cases. 
▪ But HRT has no role in reducing incidence of genital prolapsed.



17. Which of the following is not an indication for emergency caesarean section 
a. CPD b. Oligohydramnios 
c. Fetal distress 
d. Cord prolapse 
Ans: a. CPD 
Explanation: In case of CPD, we can diagnose at 38 weeks by pelvic assessment and do elective LSCS, rest all cases emergency LSCS.


18. A 35 year old female presented with painless vaginal bleeding, in the 3rd trimester which of the following is not done 
a. Abdominal examination 
b. Per vaginum examination 
c. USG 
d. I/V fluids 

Ans: b. Per vaginum examination 
Explanation: 
▪ Per vaginum examination is not recommended in case of bleeding occurring in 3 rd trimester which is painless. This is case of placenta previa, so all other things mentioned in the question can be done except P/V exam

19. Which of the following is not sling operation in case of Genital prolapsed 
a. Khanna`s 
b. Manchester 
c. Purandare 
d. Shirodkar 

Ans: b. Manchester operation 
Explanation: 
➢ Khanna`s, Purandare`s, shirodkar operations are abdominal sling operations done for nulliparous prolapse( where cervix is not amputated) whereas Manchester operation is done for genital prolapsed in multiparous lady where amputation of cervix & strengthening is done followed by Pelvic floor repair.



20. Kleihauer Betke test was positive, baby has hepatoslenomegaly, what is the diagnosis 
a. ABO incompatibility 
b. Spherocytosis 
c. Erythroblastosis fetalis 
d. Chronic feto-maternal haemorrhage 

Ans: c. Erythroblastosis Fetalis 
Explanation: 
➢ Kleihauer Betke test is done is based on principle of acid elution. It is used to measure the amount of fetal hemoglobin transferred from fetus to mother`s blood stream. 
➢ It is usually performed on Rh-negative mothers to determine the required dose of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhIg) to inhibit formation of Rh antibodies in the mother and prevent Rh disease in future Rh-positive children

21. Which of the following reinfection to mother does not affect the fetus 
a. Chickenpox 
b. Coxsachie virus 
c. Rubella 

Ans: c. Rubella


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Monday, June 22, 2020

Biochem One-Liners by DR. SMILY


Biochem One-Liners
Teacher:- Dr.  DR. SMILY


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Tuesday, June 16, 2020

Paediatrics Study Notes for FMGE


Study Notes For FMGE,PG
Subject :- Paediatrics
Topic- Growth and development
Teacher:- Dr.  Pankaj Tikku


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Sunday, June 14, 2020

AIIMS June 2020 FMT & Toxicology Questions

 
Some of the AIIMS June 2020 FMT & Toxicology questions as recalled by students 
(These are recall based questions and hence the options and reconstruction of questions may slightly vary from original questions)
((Disclaimer - Subjected to Memory bias - ☺))



Q1. A young girl came to the AIIMS Emergency OPD with her mother. Her birth date was 31/01/2007 and history of Peno-vaginal penetration by their neighbour was given by the patient. She also said that she gave the consent for the same. She refused for medical examination. What could you do as a medical practitioner attending such patient?
1. Should not inform the police 
2. Should inform the police 
3. Should counsel the mother and daughter 
4. Should do examination even after refusal 
5. Take refusal form 

A. 2,3, 5 are true 
B. 1,2,3 are true 
C. 3,4,5 are true 
D. 2,3, are true


Q2. A 23 year old male patient was brought history of stove burst. Burns involving face, head with singeing of hair, neck, both arms, front of chest bilaterally noted. The percentage of burns is 
A. 18% 
B. 27 % 
C. 36% 
D. 45%

Q3. Identify the type of injury 
A. Laceration 
B. Incised wound 
C. Chop wound 
D. Stab wound



Q4. Identify the type of injury











A. Laceration looking incision 
B. Incised looking laceration 
C. Chop wound 
D. Stab wound



Q5. Identify the type of fracture

A. Ring fracture 
B. Comminuted fracture 
C. Fissure fracture 
D. Sutural fracture



Q6. During a surgery, if a doctor feels to remove/operate more than what he anticipated before surgery, then this is covered under which doctrine?
A. Doctrine of anticipation 
B. Res Ipsa loquitare 
C. Doctrine of conjugated consent 
D. Doctrine of extended consent 



Q7. During hysterectomy surgery, there was a damage to ureter, inspite of all diligent care and precautions taken by the doctor. This is a type of
A. Medical maloccurence 
B. Res Ipsa loquitare 
C. Novus actus interveniens 
D. Physicians error



Q8. False statement regarding snake bite?
A. ASV is the mainstay of treatment 
B. Neostigmine, ventilatory support should be given along with ASV 
C. Indian polyvalent ASV not effective against hump nosed viper 
D. ASV + neostigmine+ atropine indicated for treatment of krait snake bite 



Q9. Identify the seed

A. Datura seeds 
B. Tropicana black 
C. Nigella sativa
 D. Opium 



Q10. Minimum punishment for selling spurious drug likely to cause death is
A. 1 year 
B. 5 years 
C. 7 years 
D. Life imprisonment

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Saturday, June 13, 2020

AIIMS June 2020 Questions with answers


Some of the AIIMS June 2020  questions as recalled by students 
(These are recall based questions and hence the options and reconstruction of questions may slightly vary from original questions)
((Disclaimer - Subjected to Memory bias - ☺))


 






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AIIMS June 2020 Pharmacology Questions


Some of the AIIMS June 2020 Pharmacology questions as recalled by students 
(These are recall based questions and hence the options and reconstruction of questions may slightly vary from original questions)
((Disclaimer - Subjected to Memory bias - ☺))



1. NOT a prodrug: 
a. Proguanil 
b. 5FU 
c. Sulindac 
d. Primidone

 
2. A pregnant patient is suffering from grave’s disease. Which of the following drug used during pregnancy can cause aplasia cutis: 
a. Carbimazole 
b. Warfarin 
c. PTU 
d. Thyroxin

3. . DOC for hairy cell leukemia: 
a. Cladribine 
b. Fludarabine 
c. Pentostatin 
d. IFN a

4. Best antifungal ointment for treating inflammation and pruritus: 
a. Luliconazole 
b. Terbinafine 
c. Ketoconazole 
d. Sertaconzole 


5. Which of the following anti cancer drug cause this shown skin reaction (Flagellate dermatitis in Image)
a. Bleomycin 
b. Busulfan 
c. Daunorubicin 
d. Dactinomycin 


6. An elderly Diabetic and hypertensive male presents with CKD stage 5, and does not want to take insulin. Which anti-diabetic drug will you prefer in this patient that does not require dose modification in renal disease: 
a. Linagliptin 
b. Vildagliptin 
c. Glimepiride 
d. Repaglinide 
7. A 55-year-old male who was on rosuvastatin for dyslipidemia which drug will not be given to this patient: 
a. Rivaroxaban 
b. Adalimumab 
c. Clarithromycin 
d. Enoxaparin 


8. A nurse has to give eye ointment and eyedrop to a patient. How should she give: 
a. Eye ointment followed by eye drop immediately 
b. Eye ointment followed by eye drop after 15 mins 
c. Eye drop followed by ointment immediately 
d. Eye drop followed by ointment after 15 mins
.
9.  A psychotropic drug which inhibit the reuptake of serotonin, can cause this side effect: 
a. Visual disturbance 
b. Dry mount 
c. Constipation 
d. Sexual dysfunction

10. How will you take blood sample for drug monitoring of lithium
 a. 8 hrs after last dose
b. 12 hrs after last dose 
c. 24 hrs after last dose 
d. Immediately after dose
11. A patient was given metoprolol for hypertension. He has also received verapamil. Which of the following will be seen: 
a. Bradycardia with heart block 
b. Ventricular fibrillation 
c. Torsades de pointes 
d. Tachycardia

12. Which drug is not given in NSTEMI: 
a. Clopidogrel 
b. Aspirin 
c. Streptokinase 
d. Prasugrel 

13. Mechanism of action of coumarin: 
a. Competitive 
b. Non competitive 
c. Suicide inhibition 
d. Uncompetitive

14. Best PEP for HIV: 
a. Zidovudine + lamivudine 
b. Zidovudine + Stavudine + Nevirapine 
c. Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine 
d. Zidovudine + lamivudine + Indinavir

15. Which of the following act via Intracellular receptor 
a. Thyroxin 
b. Insulin
 c. Glucagon 
d. Parathormone

16. Vitamin deficiency that can cause neonatal seizure: 
a. Thiamine
b. Riboflavin 
c. Pyridoxine 
d. Pentathanoic acid

17. Antidote for fibrinolytics overdose: 
a. Tranexamic acid 
b. Alteplase 
c. Andexanet alfa 
d. EACA
18. Action when muscarinic receptor is stimulated: 
a. Erection 
b. Ejaculation 
c. Bronchodilation 
d. Increased contraction of cardiac muscles
19. A patient is given lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. The nurse is asked to give instruction on side effects of patient and report back if any signs seen: 
a. Sedation, constipation, vomiting 
b. Palpitation, chest pain 
c. Tinnitus, severe diarrhea, ataxia 
d. Rash, raised BP, bradycardia

20. Enteric coated tablet advantages are all except: 
a. Increased half life 
b. Protect from acid 
c. Deliver drug distal to stomach 
d. Prevent irritant effect of drug to stomach

21. Which is NOT bactericidal:
 a. Kanamycin 
b. Thiocetazone 
c. Isoniazid 
d. Rifapentine 

22. A patient is on long standing anti-convulsant. There is progressive contractility of visual field: a. Vigabatrin 
b. Ethosuximide 
c. Phenobarbital 
d. Levetiracetam

23. Which is a 2nd line ATT: 
a. Ethionamide 
b. Streptomycin 
c. Acyclovir 
d. Valcyclovir 

24. A female with unilateral breast cancer is on tamoxifen therapy. Possible adverse effect which is associated with use of tamoxifen: 
a. Ovarian carcinoma 
b. Opposite breast CA 
c. Endometrial carcinoma 
d. Secondary leukemia

25. COCP mechanism of action are all EXCEPT: 
a. Inhibit ovulation 
b. Increase gonadotropin secretion
c. Increase thickness and hostility of cervical mucous 
d. Inhibit implantation

26. Which of the following is NOT used in treatment of PCOS: 
a. Letrozole 
b. Ulipristal 
c. Clomiphene citrate 
d. COCP

27. Urethral cystitis is a known side effect of: 
a. Actinomycin 
b. Bleomycin 
c. Doxorubicin 
d. Mitomycin C

28. Methylisothiazolindone role in cosmetic: 
a. Surfactant 
b. Preservative 
c. Emulsifier 
d. Humefactant

29. Drugs used in management of delirium tremens: 
a. IV Lorazepam 
b. IV Lorazepam + Thiamine 
c. IV haloperidol 
d. IV haloperidol + Thiamine

30. Which of the following reason best explains use of thiopentone sodium and Sch before ECT: 
a. To reduce secretion 
b. To calm down the patient 
c. To produce anaesthesia and muscle relaxation 
d. To stabilize mood and maintain memory

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AIIMS June 2020 Paediatrics Questions


Some of the AIIMS June 2020 Paediatrics questions as recalled by students 
(These are recall based questions and hence the options and reconstruction of questions may slightly vary from original questions)
((Disclaimer - Subjected to Memory bias - ☺))



Q1. Hand to hand shift development in a 6 months old baby, what does it indicate? 
a. Visual motor coordination 
b. Voluntary release 
c. Hand brain coordination 
d. Release phenomenon

explaination -Reference Nelson Page 132 


Q2.Vitamin deficiency causing neonatal seizure: 
a. Pyridoxine 
b. Pantothenic acid 
c. Biotin 
d. Thiamine

explaination -Pyridoxine dependency and pyridoxal -5 phosphate dependency causes neonatal seizures



Q3. Correction of VSD is done to avoid or correct:
a. Failure to thrive 
b. Arrythmia 
c. Heart attack 
d. Respiratory alkalosis

explaination -Indications for surgical closure of VSD 
a. Patient at any age with large defects in whom clinical symptoms and failure to thrive cannot be controlled medically. 
b. Infant between 6 and 12 months of age with moderate to large defect associated with pulmonary hypertension even if the symptoms are controlled by medication. 
c. Patient older than 24 months with Qp : Qs ratio greater than 2 : 1 
d. Supracristal VSD 




Q4. All are true in a severe acute malnutrition except: 
a. Weight for age less than 3 SD 
b. Weight for height less than 3SD 
c. Oedema 
d. Mid arm circumference less than 110 mm

explaination -Diagnosis of SAM a. Weight for height <70% of expected or < - 3Z score b. Mid upper arm circumference < 11.5 cm c. Edema
 


Q5. In phototherapy bilirubin is converted to: 
a. Lumirubin 
b. Biliverdin

explaination -In phototherapy – • Structural isomerisation o Bilirubin is converted to lumirubin 
Photo isomerisation o 4Z, 15Z – bilirubin is converted to 4Z, 15E – bilirubin



Q6. 2 months back history of fever with bloody diarrhoea in a child followed by swollen, red and errythematous joint: 
a. Rota virus 
b. Shigella 
c. E. Coli 
d. Giordia

explaination -Post infectious complication in entric infection
a. Reactive arthritis 
i. Salmonella
 ii. Shigella 
iii. Yersinia
 iv. Campylobacter 

b. Guillain – Barre syndrome
 i. Campylobacter 

c. Haemolytic uremic syndrome – 
i. STEC
 ii. Shigella dysentenae 1




Q7. Features of severe dehydration except: 
a. Thirsty child 
b. Sunken fontanelle 
c. Skin pitch return slowly 
d. Drowsy




Q8. All are indicative of paediatric asthma except: 
a. Increase in FEV1 > 12% after bronchodilator 
b. AM : PM variation > 15% 
c. FEV1 decrease more than 15% after exercise 
d. FEV1 / FVC < 80%

explaination - Lung Function Abnormalities in Asthma and Assessment of Airway Inflammation 
• Spirometry (in clinic) 
• Airflow limitation: 
o Low FEV1 (relative to percentage of predicted norms) 
o FEV1/FVC ratio <0.80 

• Bronchodilator response (to inhaled β-agonist) assesses reversibility of airflow limitation. 
• Reversibility is determined by an increase in either FEV1>1 2% or predicted FEV1)10% after inhalation of a short-acting 

• B-agonist (SABA) 
• Exercise challenge: 
o Worsening in FEV1 ≥ 15% 

• Daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) or FEV1 monitoring: day-to-day and / or AM-to-PM variation ≥20%



Q9. Osteomalacia is developed due to excess excretion of phosphate in urine. What is the diagnosis: 
a. Antiepileptic drug 
b. Vit D resistance 
c. Hereditary 
d. Vit D deficiency

explaination -Among the genetic disorders causing rickets
 X linked hypophosphatemic is the most common 
Increased fibroblast excretion Overproduction of FGF23 is also seen in –
a. Tumour induced osteomalacia 
b. McCune Albright syndrome 
c. Fanconisyndrome 
d. Dent disease

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